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Exam Code: VCP510-DT
Exam Name: VMware (VMware Certified Professional 5 - Desktop )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 205 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which two operating systems are supported for the View Connection Server? (Choose two.)
A. Windows Server 2003 R2 64-bit Standard or Enterprise
B. Windows Server 2003 R2 32-bit Standard or Enterprise
C. Windows Server 2008 R2 32-bit Standard or Enterprise
D. Windows Server 2008 R2 64-bit Standard or Enterprise
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 An administrator is creating a new virtual machine for use as a View Transfer Server.
Which SCSI controller should be selected?
A. Buslogic Parallel
B. LSI Logic Parallel
C. LSI Logic SAS
D. VMware Paravirtual
Answer: C

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
A proposed configuration of three replica servers is shown.
What can result from this configuration?
Multiple ADAM instances can cause a performance problem.
A. Three replica servers can result in client connection problems.
B. Multiple connections to Active Directory can cause a performance problem.
C. Replication over WAN connections can cause inconsistencies in the LDAP database.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which three items must be configured prior to installing a View Security Server? (Choose three.)
A. Connection Server
B. Security Server External URL
C. Security Server Firewall Exceptions
D. Security Server Pairing Password
E. Security Server Static IP address
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.5 Which two ports must be opened in the firewall to enable communication between a Security Server and
a Connection Server? (Choose two.)
A. 4001
B. 8443
C. 3389
D. 8009
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 What are three supported Database Servers for VMware View Composer in a VMware View 5
environment? (Choose three.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Express with vCenter Server 4.1 U1
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Express with vCenter Server 5.0
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 SP3 Standard with vCenter Server 5.0
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2008 R2 Express with vCenter 4.0 U3
E. Microsoft SQL Server 2008 R2 Express with vCenter Server 5.0
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.7 Which two platforms are supported by VMware View Composer in a VMware View 5 environment?
(Choose two.)
A. VMware vCenter 4.0 Update 3 running on Windows Server 2008 R2
B. VMware vCenter 4.1 Update 1 running on Windows XP Pro 64-bit
C. VMware vCenter 4.1 Update 1 running on Windows Server 2003 64-bit
D. VMware vCenter 5.0 running on Windows Server 2008 R2
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 What is the minimum required level of privileges required to install the View Connection Server?
A. Domain User
B. Domain Administrator
C. Local Power User
D. Local Administrator
Answer: D

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NO.9 What are three required permissions that need to be assigned to the View Composer user account?
(Choose three.)
A. Create User Accounts
B. Create Computer Objects
C. Delete Group Accounts
D. Delete Computer Objects
E. Write All Properties
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.10 Which two steps are part of the View Composer installation process? (Choose two.)
A. select the Enable View Composer checkbox in the View Administrator
B. install the View Composer on the vCenter Server system
C. register View Composer service on the Windows system
D. configure ODBC connection to the View Composer database
Answer: B,D

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NO.11 An administrator is preparing to install a View Connection Server 5.x for the first time.
Which two server prerequisites are required for a proper installation on Windows Server 2003? (Choose
two.)
A. Configure a SSL certificate for use with the Connection Server.
B. Configure a static IP address on the server.
C. Configure a domain administrator account for installation.
D. Configure the firewall with the appropriate open ports.
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 An administrator is installing a View Security Server on a Windows Server 2003 R2 system.
Which three Windows Firewall ports must be pre-configured prior to installation to enable remote access?
(Choose three.)
A. 443
B. 3389
C. 4001
D. 4172
E. 8009
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.13 Which two operating systems are supported for a View Transfer Server installation? (Choose two.)
A. Windows Server 2008 32-bit
B. Windows Server 2003 R2 SP2 32-bit
C. Windows Server 2003 SP2 64-bit
D. Windows Server 2008 R2 64-bit
Answer: B,D

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NO.14 What is the proper syntax to use when adding a domain user to the View Composer configuration?
A. DOMAIN\USER
B. DOMAIN.COM\USER
C. OU=DOMAIN, CN=USER
D. USER@DOMAIN.COM
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which two ports must be opened in the firewall to enable communication between a View Connection
Server and the vCenter Server running View Composer? (Choose two.)
A. 18443
B. 443
C. 389
D. 4172
Answer: A,B

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NO.16 How many disks can a View Transfer Server concurrently transfer?
A. 15
B. 60
C. 4
D. 30
Answer: B

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NO.17 An administrator is adding a replicated instance of View Connection Server to the environment silently.
Which MSI property would be used to identify the instance being replicated?
A. ADAM_PRIMARY_INSTANCE
B. ADAM_PRIMARY_NAME
C. VDM_INSTANCE_NAME
D. VDM_SERVER_INSTANCE
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which TCP port must be open on the firewall of the View Transfer Server?
A. 443
B. 21
C. 389
D. 4172
Answer: A

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NO.19 The View Composer Database stores information about which three components and connections.?
(Choose three.)
A. Active Directory Connections
B. View Connection Broker Connections
C. Replicas created by the View Composer
D. Disposable data disk created by View Composer
E. Linked-clone desktops deployed by View Composer
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.20 An Administrator is upgrading to View Connection Server 5.x from a previous release.
Which component is omitted from installation automatically during an upgrade?
A. VMware Message Bus Component
B. VMware Script Host
C. VMware PCoIP Secure Gateway
D. VMware VDMDS
Answer: D

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Exam Code: VCPC510
Exam Name: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on vCloud)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 250 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which two resources must be in place prior to creating a new Provider vDC? (Choose two.)
A. vCloud External Network
B. vCenter Datastore
C. vCenter Resource Pool
D. vShield Protection Group
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 Which two components are required for a vCloud infrastructure installation? (Choose two.)
A. AMQP Broker
B. vCloud Connector
C. vShield Manager
D. Oracle/MS SQL database
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 An administrator attempts to delete the network named Internet but receives an error.
What is a possible reason for the error?
A. The network named Internet is backed by a port group on a vSphere Standard Switch.
B. The vShield Edge appliance on the external network is powered off.
C. The administrator needs to be an Organization Administrator.
D. The network is still in use by an Organization.
Answer: D

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NO.4 On which two vSphere elements can traffic shaping be configured? (Choose two.)
A. On a vSphere Distributed Switch dvPort for inbound and/or outbound traffic
B. On a vSphere Distributed Switch for inbound and/or outbound traffic
C. On a vSphere Standard Switch port group or the entire vSwitch for inbound traffic
D. On a vSphere Standard Switch port group or the entire vSwitch for inbound and outbound traffic
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 In a large organization, a user has 10 VMs deployed in vCloud Director, backed by a
Pay-As-You-
Go allocation model. The user needs to determine the charges being incurred for resource usage.
Which report type does the user need?
A. Showback Report
B. Usage Report
C. Cost Comparison Report
D. Cost Report
Answer: D

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NO.6 An administrator would like to have vCenter take action any time a virtual machine is using
over
90% of its available resources for five minutes or longer.
Which three actions can be taken by vCenter Server in response to the trigger without running a
script? (Choose three.)
A. Power on a VM
B. Reboot Guest on VM
C. Increase Virtual Machine Memory
D. Migrate a VM
E. Increase Virtual Machine CPU Shares
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.7 Which three features are only available when using a vSphere Distributed Switch? (Choose
three.)
A. Port Mirroring
B. PVLAN tagging
C. Egress Traffic Shaping
D. Ingress Traffic Shaping
E. 802.1q VLAN Tagging
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.8 As a System Administrator you can disable an Organization vDC. Disabling will have which of
the
following effects? (Choose two)
A. vApps in the Org vDC that are not running cannot be powered on.
B. All vApps in the Org vDC will be shutdown.
C. Users will not be able to create or start additional vApps in that Org vDC.
D. The running vApps in the Org vDC will have their storage lease reset.
Answer: A,C

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Exam Code: DP-021W
Exam Name: Veritas (Design of Data Protection Solutions for Windows using NetBackup 5.0)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 You have a Microsoft Windows 2003 client, which you want to add to the NetBackup
use VSP or NetBackup database options (for example, MSSQL,
Exchange, Oracle, and so on) on this client.
What would be the impact to downtime?
A. There will be two reboots required one reboot to load the VERITAS installer and one
reboot for NetBackup installation
B. There is no need for a reboot for NetBackup to be properly installed
C. There will be one reboot to load the VERITAS installer, but NetBackup will not
require a separate reboot.
D. There will be a need for NetBackup to be properly installed
Answer: B

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NO.2 You are in the process of disaster recovery planning. Your focus is on the
recovery of IT systems. In your evaluation of the environment you must collect
data regarding the physical locations.
Which list contains the main categories of disasters?
A. logical (hardware-related)
logical (software-related)
environmental
B. management failures
Logical (software-related)
environmental
C. SPDFA
logical(software-related)
environmental(software-related)
D. hardware failure
logical(software-related)
environmental
Answer: D

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NO.3 You have already designed a proposed solution for a department's data protection
requirement. Now you want to validate the design with the department
Which change in the department's environment affects your design the most?
A. increased server memory capacity
B. upgrades the Master Server
C. increased distance between clients and servers
D. a dedicated backup network
Answer: D

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NO.4 You have analyzed the current configuration of a data protection environment.
You now need to determine your expectations for future growth.
Which type of analysis do you perform?
A. Gap Analysis
B. Storage Checkpoint analysis
C. GANTT chart analysis
D. PERT chart analysis
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which major shift in business direction most significantly affects for the highest levels of
Data Protection?
A. customer self-service Web applications
B. staff reduction
C. automated workgroup processes
D. revenue recognition
Answer: A

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NO.6 Your current Netbackup environment uses a tape library capable of holding 500 tapes .
Each tape is capable of holding 40GB of data. You are putting in a new library with
modem drives capable of holding 300GB each. You want to have twice the total capacity
of your old library to meet future growth.
What is the minimum of tape slots you will need in your new library?
A. 80
B. 110
C. 140
D. 170
Answer: C

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NO.7 When determining the required backup performance of a Data Protection design,
which three items should be determined? (choose three)
A. media server backup performance
B. network and SAN data rates
C. capacity of tape media
D. client backup windows
Answer: ABD

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NO.8 Your environment uses a SAN for disk access.
Which feature of NetBackup 5.0 Advanced Client is appropriate?
A. fast backups
B. off-host backups
C. referential backups
D. incremental backups
Answer: B

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NO.9 Recovery Time Objectives address which element?
A. Databases must be recovered to the last fully committed transition.
B. Cold database backups must be performed every day.
C. The data in different applications may have different recovery requirements
D. Flat file and database are to be treated the same in terms of importance.
Answer: C

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NO.10 A new file server is being added to your NetBackup 5.0 environment. It is being used to
store 1-GB 'product' data files for the marketing department. The marketing department
already has 6,000 product data files in place (5 TB of total disk space) and expects to add
about 500 product files per week for the next 30 weeks. After files are added they are
never edited or modified.
You have an SLA with Marketing that you will perform a full backup every Saturday,
and the backup must be performed between 12:01a.m Saturday and Noon Saturday (a
36-hour window)
Given this, what is the minimum network bandwidth you need to handle the full backup?
A. teamed 1-gigabit (168 MB/s)
B. single 1-gigabit (84 MB/s)
C. 100 base T (8.4 MB/s)
D. 10 base T (0.8 MB/s)
Answer: A

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NO.11 In which case will the FlashBackup feature be of benefit?
A. a large Oracle database that contains lots of data
B. a server with file system that are 80% full, containing several million files each
C. a server with file systems that are 20% full, containing old files
D. a server with file systems that are 20% full, containing a few files, each several
hundred MB
Answer: B

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NO.12 A large number of Windows 2003 clients are failing with status code 11. it is suspected
that the snapshot process is failing. In reviewing the Activity Monitor logs it is found that
backups of certain clients are very slow. These clients host a large number of small files.
What NetBackup feature helps resolve this issue?
A. VNETD
B. VOPIED
C. multiplexing
D. multistreaming
Answer: C

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NO.13 You are encountering problems with host names and network connections. You have
already verified that the correct client and server host names are configured in
NetBackup.
Which commands do you use to verify name resolution on UNIX and Windows clients?
A. bpexpdate
B. bpclntcmd
C. bptest
D. bpverify
Answer: B

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NO.14 Your current environment consists of one master server, four media servers and five
hundred clients. Your company has planned to add an additional datacenter with the
capacity of housing an additional 1,000 clients.
Which three things are considered when planning the expansion of your backup
environment? (choose three)
A. the operating system version of clients
B. SAN infrastructure available
C. cooling capacity of new datacenter
D. network connectivity between the datacenters
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.15 Your NetBackup environment will consist of four media servers and a robot with
two tape drives. The media servers and the robot are SAN attaches. Each media
servers also functions as a large file server on the network.
Which three goals will be addressed by implementing the Shared Storage Option in
this environment? (Choose three)
A. minimized network traffic during the backup window
B. high performance on the four local media server backups
C. high performance on remote(network) client backups
D. improved tape drive usage among media servers.
E. improved performance data collection for backups
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.16 A system administrator has communicated an interest in using the NetBackup
FlashBackup feature of the Advanced Client. What key technical information must you
gather in order to know whether this feature would be appropriate.
A. number of files on the file system
B. frequency of backups needed
C. density of the tapes being used for backups
D. age of the files on the file system
Answer: A

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NO.17 In reviewing the bpbkar logs on a NetBackup client to investigate slow backups it is
noticed that several drives are being backed up concurrently rather than sequentially.
Each of the logical drives is a partition on a single physical disk drive.
Which is disabled to avoid "disk thrashing" on this client and other similarly configured
clients?
A. multistreaming
B. True Image Restore
C. parallel backups
D. multiplexing
Answer: A

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NO.18 Your NetBackup environment will consist of two media servers (Server A and Server B)
and a robot with four tape drives. Each media server also functions as a large files server
on the network.
Which design best uses the available hardware?
A. configures Server A as the robot control host, configure the four drives on ServerB
B. configure Server A as the robot control host, configure two drives on each media
server
C. configures both media servers as the robot control hosts, configure the four drives on
ServerA
D. configure both media servers as the robot control hosts, configure two drives on each
media server
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which three items are optional considerations in a Data Protection design? (Choose
three)
A using supported server platforms
B. using agents for databases
C. using mirror snapshots for backups
D. using a private backup network
Answer: BCD

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NO.20 You are determining the scope of a data protection solution. You have already
analyzedpreferences and deadlines.
Which two other items must be analyzed before you can provide a solution? (choose
two).
A. information in the SLA
B. network infrastructure
C. number of employees
D. number of tapes purchased
Answer: A,B

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Exam Code: TB0-110
Exam Name: Tibco (TIBCO Collaborative Information Manager 7 Exam)
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Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which of the following parameters are required to retrieve a deleted record using a web service query?
A. RECORD_ID and ACTIVE
B. RECORD_STATE and ACTIVE
C. RECORD_VERSION and ACTIVE
D. RECORD_ID and RECORD_STATE
E. No parameters settings are required
F. RECORD_VERSION and RECORD_ID
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which TIBCO CIM utility is used to apply a hot fix?
A. tibcoUtil
B. hotfixUtil
C. migrateUtil
D. customUtil
E. tibcoCIMUtil
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which two can an input map use to assign an attribute a value? (Choose two.)
A. hard-coded value
B. a concatenation of two or moredatasource columns
C. an expression based on the value of a child record attribute
D. a user-supplied value provided during execution of the import event
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 Which of the following statements is incorrect when using a database table as a CIM data source?
A. Any new records added to the table are immediately available to CIM
B. The table or view must reside in the same database instance that CIM is using
C. If the data source contains any attributes of typedate, all such attributes must have the same date
format
D. It is not possible to provide CIM specific column names for the table when defining the data source
properties
Answer: B

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NO.5 You delete the log files in the MQ_COMMON_DIR/Work directory. What is affected?
A. Elink log
B. Event log
C. Record History
D. Repository History
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which two statements are true about Subflow and SpawnWorkflow activities? (Choose two.)
A. BothSubflows and SpawnWorkflows can be nested.
B. Subflows can be nested, but SpawnWorkflows can not.
C. Both execution modes are supported by both activities.
D. SpawnWorkflow is ASYNCHR and Subflow is SYNCHR.
E. Subflow is ASYNCHR and SpawnWorkflow is SYNCHR.
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 The workflow activities that support parallel processing can be tuned for performance. This can be
achieved by configuring a parameter for the activity RecordPerAsyncCall. What is the default value for
this parameter?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 50
D. 100
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which three statements are true about the catalogs when used for extracting the data from a repository?
(Choose three.)
A. You can choose which attributes are to be extracted.
B. You can choose which record status should be included.
C. You can choose subset rules defined on a different master catalog.
D. You can choose anyrulebase if there are any transformation rules to be applied.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.9 The following sample section of a rulebase will result in the displaying of which alerts on the UI?
A. Warning Only
B. Information Only
C. Severe Error Only
D. No alerts will be presented
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which three are valid topic names with TIBCO CIM? (Choose three.)
A. T_ECM_CORE_ADMIN
B. T_ECM_CORE_RULE_CACHE
C. T_ECM_CORE_OBJECT_CACHE
D. T_ECM_CORE_REPOSITORY_CACHE
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.11 What can be used to retrieve all records that match a value across all repositories?
A. Text Search
B. Event Search
C. Subset Rules
D. Record Search
Answer: A

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NO.12 A string type attribute that is set to 0 length will default to what actual length?
A. 32 characters
B. 512 characters
C. 256 characters
D. 1000 characters
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which three ProgrammingOperators are supported while defining new conditions and actions for
Business Process Rules? (Choose three.)
A. equals
B. lessThan
C. notEqualTo
D. greaterThanEqual
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.14 Which two values can be set for a user via the User Accounts Administration page? (Choose two.)
A. Date Format
B. Default Repository
C. Activate Delegation
D. Activate Auto-Approval
E. Default Catalog Format
F. Activate Out-Of-Office Notification
Answer: A,C

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NO.15 What are six types of command qualifiers supported by MasterCatalogRecord web services? (Choose
six.)
A. Add
B. Modify
C. Delete
D. MetaData
E. ValidValues
F. ValidValuesInit
G. Validate/Process
Answer: A,B,D,E,F,G

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NO.16 Which three are supported command types for the MasterCatalogRecord web services? (Choose
three.)
A. Add
B. Copy
C. Query
D. Modify
E. Compare
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.17 Which three statements are true about context variables for a rulebase? (Choose three.)
A. The SESSION object requires explicit declaration in therulebase.
B. Previous confirmed and unconfirmed version records can be accessed.
C. Attribute access can be restricted to certain roles using context variables.
D. RECORD_ACTION is a special variable and can be directly used for operation.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.18 Which two configurable settings are related to workflow in TIBCO CIM Configurator? (Choose two.)
A. Workflow Cache Size
B. Workflow Timeout Value
C. Workflow Restart Attempts
D. Workflow Manager Directory
E. Workflow File Extension Default
Answer: C,D

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NO.19 To enable text search continuous indexing, the Text Indexing Enabled property is set to which option?
A. Online
B. Offline
C. Discrete
D. Continuous
E. User Enabled
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which activity must be used to send an e-mail message?
A. Send
B. HandleMessaging
C. SendProtocolMessage
D. ProcessServiceMessage
Answer: A

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Exam Code: TB0-122
Exam Name: Tibco (TIBCO BusinessEvents 5 Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 112 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 How do you override the default event for a JMS destination?
A. Map incoming messages directly to an event in TIBCO BusinessEvents
B. Map incoming messages only through the_ns_field in the message
C. Map incoming messages only through the_nm_fieldinthemessage
D. Map incoming messages through two fields (_ns_,_nm_) in the message
Answer: D

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NO.2 What are three features of Pattern Matcher? (Choose three.)
A. The Pattern service can be started and stopped anytime inside the engine,
B. The Pattern service can only be run inside an Inference agent.
C. The Pattern service starts automatically when the engine starts.
D. The Pattern service can run in Inference agent or Query agent.
E. Each agent has a separate instance of the Pattern service.
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.3 Which three TIBCO BusinessEvents objects can be stored in cache servers? (Choose three.)
A. Scorecards
B. Global Variables
C. Rule Functions
D. Concepts
E. Events
F. Rules
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.4 Which two JMS message types are supported by TextMessageSerializer? (Choose two.)
A. MapMessage
B. BytesMessage
C. StreamMessage
D. TextMessage
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Which two statements are true about a new installation of TIBCO BusinessEvents? (Choose two.)
A. An existing Eclipse installation can be used.
B. An existing Eclipse installation cannot be used.
C. TIBCO BusinessEvents can be installed for use with TIBCO Business Studio business modeling
software.
D. TIBCO BusinessEvents cannot be installed for use with TIBCO Business Studio business modeling
software.
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 In Cache Object Management settings, what does the property cache Agent Quo rum specify?
A. The number of members in the cluster that hold the backup data
B. The size of the limited cache
C. The minimum number of storage-enabled nodes that must be active in the cluster at startup
D. The maximum size of the object table cache
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two channels represent configurable physical connections to a resource? (Choose two.)
A. JMS
B. FTP
C. HTTP
D. Local
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 Which TIBCO BusinessEvents add-on software enables queries using a language that is SQL-like?
A. Decision Manager
B. Event Stream Processing
C. Views
D. Data Modeling
Answer: D

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NO.9 Concept A contains Concept B. Concept A is using Cache Only mode of object management.
Which object management mode is recommended for Concept B to use?
A. Memory Only
B. Memory Only or Cache + Memory or Cache Only
C. Memory Only or Cache Only
D. Cache + Memory or Cache Only
Answer: D

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NO.10 When does an RTC cycle end.?
A. When an external action causes changes to the RETE network
B. When TIBCO BusinessEvents builds (or refreshes) a rule action agenda
C. When a rule action is executed
D. When the rule action agenda is empty
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which statement is true about rules?
A. To assert a new set of concept instances it must be returned as arrays of objects from a rule
B. Executing a rule action may prevent the execution of other rules matching the criteria.
C. Returning an event instance from a rule sends the event to its default destination.
D. All rules matching the conditions at the given time will be triggered in parallel.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which object management type should be used when cacheLoadconceptById () has been defined
explicitly to load objects?
A. In-memory
B. Cache only
C. Cache + Memory
D. Berkeley DB
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which two functions does the studio-tools.exe utility provide? (Choose two)
A. Imports version 2.x projects
B. Imports version 3.x projects
C. Analyzes decision tables
D. Validates decision tables
E. Exports decision tables to Microsoft Excel
F. Imports decision tables from Microsoft Excel
Answer: A,E

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NO.14 Which three statements about a CDD are true? (Choose three.)
A. A CDD can be associated with only one Object Management type at any given time.
B. Deployment requires both a CDD and the project.
C. Deployment requires both CDD and EAR files.
D. A project can have a one-to-many relationship with a CDD.
E. A CDD needs to be rebuilt when a new rule is added to the project.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.15 Which file must be configured with system-level settings before the TIBCO BusinessEvents engine
starts?
A. TRA
B. CDD
C. Site Topology
D. be-engine.xml
Answer: A

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NO.1 What must be performed before creating an empty concatenated volume in a new disk group?
A. encapsulate the volume and assign a disk group
B. initialize the disks and assign them to a disk group
C. create an empty subdisk in the disk group and assign the volume
D. in VEA, select Actions -> Volume -> Disk Group -> New
Answer: B

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NO.2 You want to track changes to files and directories in a file system to improve performance of a search
engineapplication. Which VERITAS File System feature do you enable?
A. the intent log
B. the file change log
C. the object location table file
D. the quotas file
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two virtual objects are components of a Volume Manager volume? (Choose two.)
A. VM disk
B. subdisk
C. plex
D. physical disk
Answer: BC

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NO.4 Which command is used to move the contents of the volumes from one disk to another?
A. vxremove
B. vxevac
C. vxdg move
D. vxdg evac
Answer: B

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NO.5 When using Volume Manager, what is considered the correct definition for RAID-5?
A. Combines mirroring with striping or concatenation where the mirroring occurs below the striping or
concatenation in order to mirror each column of the stripe or each chunk of the concatenation
B. Refers to mirroring where data from one disk is duplicated on another disk to provide redundancy and
enable fast recovery.
C. Refers to simple concatenation or striping where disk space is combined sequentially from two or more
disks or striped across two or more disks. RAID-0 does NOT provide data redundancy.
D. Refers to a striped layout that includes the calculation of parity information and the striping of that
parity information across the disks.
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the virtual object that Volume Manager uses to represent the structured or ordered collection of
subdisks?
A. volume
B. plex
C. vmdisk
D. disk group
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which three plex types are valid in Volume Manager? (Choose three.)
A. complete
B. partial
C. log
D. sparse
E. partition
Answer: ACD

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NO.8 You have used the vxprint command with the appropriate options to save information about the volume
layouts on your system. Now, you want to use vxprint to provide useful information that can be used later
as input for the vxmake command to help rebuild your volume configurations. Which option must be used
with vxprint?
A. -r
B. -t
C. -a
D. -m
Answer: D

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NO.9 You want to remove the datavol volume from the datadg disk group by using the command line. A file
system is currently mounted on the volume. You are sure that you do NOT need the data in the volume.
What is the appropriate sequence of steps to remove the volume and avoid system errors?
A. remove the volume by using the vxremove command (The file system will be unmounted automatically,
and the filesystem table file will be automatically updated to remove the entry for the file system.)
B. unmount the file system, then remove the volume using vxassist remove, and then manually edit the
file system tablefile to remove the entry for the file system
C. remove the volume by using the vxassist remove command (The file system will be unmounted
automatically;however, you must then manually edit the file system table file to remove the entry for the
file system.)
D. unmount the file system, then remove the volume using vxremove, and then manually edit the file
system table file to remove the entry for the file system
Answer: B

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NO.10 The Volume View window in VEA displays the characteristics of the volumes on the disks. After
selecting a volume or disk group in VEA, how is the Volume View window displayed?
A. Tools -> Volume View
B. Tools -> Volume -> View
C. Actions -> Volume -> View
D. Actions -> Volume View
Answer: D

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NO.11 In order to resize an existing volume and its file system in Volume Manager while it remains online,
the file system must be _____.
A. in the bootdg disk group
B. checked before the process
C. shared across disk groups
D. mounted during the process
Answer: D

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NO.12 You are analyzing the output of the vxdisk alldgs list command. There are no entries in the DISK and
GROUPcolumns; however, you see "online" in the output of the STATUS column. Which three explain the
"online" status of the disk in this scenario? (Choose three.)
A. The disk is in the free disk pool.
B. The disk has been initialized or encapsulated.
C. The disk is NOT currently assigned to a disk group.
D. The disk is currently deported on another system.
Answer: ABC

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NO.13 Which two commands can be used to remove a mirror from a volume? (Choose two.)
A. vxassist remove mirror
B. vxdisk
C. vxremove mirror
D. vxplex
Answer: AD

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NO.14 You have a disk group named testdg, which you want to rename to engdg. To rename the disk group
from the command line, you __________.
A. must destroy the disk group and then re-create the disk group using the new name
B. must use the vxdg change command, which performs a deport and an import in a single step
C. use vxdg deport followed by vxdg import, and the volumes are automatically started in the disk group
after the import
D. use vxdg deport followed by vxdg import, then you must manually start volumes in the disk group by
using the vxvol command
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which area of a disk is used by Volume Manager to store information such as disk headers,
configuration copies, and kernel logs?
A. the public region
B. the private region
C. the virtual region
D. the CDS region
Answer: B

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NO.16 When using the New Volume Wizard in VEA, what are the two layout options available to create a
layered volume? (Choose two.)
A. Concatenated Mirrored
B. Striped Mirrored
C. Mirrored Striped
D. Mirrored Concatenated
Answer: AB

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NO.17 In this volume layout the mirroring occurs below the striping or concatenation in order to mirror each
column of the stripe or each chunk of the concatenation. This type of layout is called a layered volume.
What is the correct RAID level for a volume layout that combines mirroring with striping or concatenation?
A. RAID-1+0
B. RAID-0+1
C. RAID-5
D. RAID-2
Answer: A

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NO.18 What are three advantages of a properly configured traditional mirrored volume layout? (Choose
three.)
A. improved reliability and availability
B. decreases the need for Volume Manager disks
C. improved read performance
D. fast recovery through logging
Answer: ACD

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NO.19 Which three are characteristics of a disk group? (Choose three.)
A. collection of Volume Manager disks
B. eases the use of resources in a high availability environment
C. allows Volume Manager objects to span multiple disk groups
D. represents a management and configuration boundary
Answer: ABD

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NO.20 What are three advantages of a concatenated volume layout? (Choose three.)
A. removes size restrictions
B. provides load balancing
C. better usage of space
D. simplifies administration
Answer: ACD

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Exam Code: 251-312
Exam Name: Symantec (Admin of Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 246 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which compression type produces the least network traffic in a multi-server backup environment?
A. compression with de-duplication
B. software compression
C. hardware compression
D. compression with encryption
Answer: B

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NO.2 Refer to the exhibit.
Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers option is required to manage all backups from the
data center?
A. Shared Storage Option
B. Active Directory Recovery Option
C. Central Admin Server Option
D. Executive Desktop Option
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers component manages devices and media?
A. Advanced Device and Media Manager
B. Media Operations Manager
C. Enterprise Media Manager
D. Advanced Tape Device Manager
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which two factors define a backup Service Level Agreement (SLA)? (Choose two.)
A. Recovery Point Objective
B. Recovery Time Objective
C. Recovery Method
D. Recovery Retention Period
E. Recovery Priority Objective
Answer: AB

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NO.5 A web-based retailer's mission-critical servers must be online constantly, providing zero downtime in
which to run a backup.
Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers component is required in order to meet the SLA?
A. Advanced Disk-based Backup Option
B. Continuous Protection Server Option
C. Volume Shadow Copy Services Option
D. Central Admin Server Option
Answer: B

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NO.6 A single tape-drive robotic library is attached to the Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers
(Backup Exec) media server but fails to display in the Backup Exec Devices window. The library is in the
correct location under the Robotic Libraries tree, but instead of listing the drive underneath it, there is a
listing of Unknown Drive. The drive name is listed under Stand-alone Drives.
What must be done to solve this problem?
A. Restart the Backup Exec Server service and scan for new devices in Windows Device Manager.
B. Power down the Backup Exec Server and the attached robotic library, then power up the robotic library
before powering up the Backup Exec Server.
C. Run the Backup Exec Device Configuration Wizard and drag the correct drive name to the position
under the robotic library.
D. Because the robotic library is unserialized and not supported by Backup Exec, replace the robotic
library with a supported robotic library.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A medium-sized paper company with several remote offices deploys Symantec Backup Exec 12 for
Windows Servers Central Admin Server Option (CASO) in their data center. The company's SLA requires
that the backup environment be restored to an alternate location in the event of a data center outage.
Which CASO catalog location option meets this company's SLA?
A. Centralized Catalog
B. Distributed Catalog
C. Replicated Catalog
D. Exported Catalog
Answer: C

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NO.8 Using the silent mode method, how can a backup administrator push-install Backup Exec Remote
Agent for Windows Systems simultaneously to multiple machines?
A. create a command file that reads a number from a .txt file
B. create a command file that reads remote computer names from a .txt file
C. use the Push Install Wizard to add the number of simultaneous installs
D. use the Push Install Wizard to add the parameters for the silent installation
Answer: B

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NO.9 Refer to the exhibit.
Annual accounting history must be archived for 120 days and marketing history must be archived for 90
days.
Which setting allows reporting for marketing and accounting history?
A. change Keep alert history to 90 days
B. change Keep job logs to 120 days
C. change Keep job history selection for keep job history to match current OPP
D. change Keep job history for selected number of days to 120
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which three statements are true about the attributes of a device pool? (Choose three.)
A. The All Available Drives device pool can be deleted.
B. A drive can belong to more than one device pool.
C. A device pool can contain different types of drives.
D. Device priority can be set on a device pool.
E. Multiple backup jobs can be targeted to the same device pool.
Answer: BCE

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NO.11 Which account enables Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers to access resources for
backup?
A. administrative
B. logon
C. service
D. domain
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers agent/option provides Microsoft Virtual Server
support?
A. Shadow Copy
B. Virtual Machine
C. System State
D. Remote Agent
Answer: D

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NO.13 A large enterprise provides a six-hour backup window at night, but requires failed systems to be
restored immediately.
Which SLA meets the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Recovery Time Objective (RTO)
requirements?
A. RPO 0, RTO 0
B. RPO 6 hours, RTO 6 hours
C. RPO 6 hours, RTO 0
D. RPO 0, RTO 6 hours
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers (Backup Exec) utility can be used to change
the user account listed in the Backup Exec services?
A. Services
B. BEServices
C. ServicesMgr
D. BEDIAG
Answer: C

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NO.15 Refer to the exhibit.
A backup administrator must recover all Microsoft Word documents (.doc) created after January 1, 2005
from the F:\CEO directory, including subfolders.
How is this accomplished?
A. enter F:\CEO for the Path; enter *.doc for the File; select Include subdirectories; enter 1/1/2005 for
From box; enter today's date for To box; select Include for Type
B. enter F:\CEO for the Path; enter *.* for the File; enter 1/1/2005 for the From Box; leave the To box blank;
select Include for Type
C. enter F:\*.* for the Path; enter \CEO\*.doc for the File; select Include subdirectories; enter 1/1/2005 for
the From box; enter today's date for the To box; select Exclude for Type
D. enter \* for the Path; enter *.doc for the File; select Include subdirectories; enter 1/1/2005 for the From
box; enter today's date for the To box; select Include for Type
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which technology provides the most efficient Recovery Point Objective (RPO)?
A. Remote Administration Option
B. Intelligent Disaster Recovery Option
C. Backup Exec System Recovery
D. Continuous Protection Server
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which three versions of Microsoft SQL does Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers support?
(Choose three.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server Desktop Edition (MSDE) 2000
B. Microsoft SQL 2005 Express Edition
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 SP2
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 SP3a or later
E. Microsoft SQL Server 7.0
F. Microsoft SQL 2005
Answer: BDF

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NO.18 Which database application is included with Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers?
A. Microsoft SQL 2005 Express
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 SP2
C. Microsoft SQL Desktop Edition 2000
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2005
Answer: A

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NO.19 An attempt to install the Remote Agent for Linux and UNIX Servers on a UNIX server fails.
Which log can be reviewed to determine the cause of the installation failure?
A. /var/tmp/vxif/installralus/installralus.log
B. /var/logs/ralus/installralus.log
C. /install/symantec/logs/ralus.log
D. /usr/openv/symantec/logs/install.log
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which two statements are accurate regarding full backups and copy backups? (Choose two.)
A. Full backups and copy backups of the same resource include the same data.
B. Full backups and copy backups are different names for the exact same backup method.
C. Full backups and copy backups can be configured to reset the archive bit of backed up files.
D. Full backups can reset the archive bit of backed up files; copy backups are unable to reset the archive
bit.
E. Copy backups can reset the archive bit of backed up files; full backups are unable to reset the archive
bit.
Answer: AD

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NO.21 What are two benefits of enabling Database Maintenance in Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows
Servers? (Choose two.)
A. deletes aged reports
B. exports the database to XML
C. removes alert history
D. decreases the size of the database
E. opens the database for sharing
Answer: CD

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NO.22 Which two alert category types can be disabled? (Choose two.)
A. Warning alerts
B. Attention Required alerts
C. Error alerts
D. E-mail Failure alerts
E. Informational alerts
Answer: AE

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NO.23 Which two Calendar Schedule settings can you use to schedule a job to run on the first and fifteenth of
every month? (Choose two.)
A. Specific Dates
B. Recurring Week Days
C. Recurring Days of the Month
D. Day Interval
E. Time Window
Answer: AC

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NO.24 A financial institution has a two-hour backup window and is required to restore individual e-mails
within 20 minutes if their Microsoft Exchange Server fails.
Which Service Level Agreement (SLA) meets the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Recovery Time
Objective (RTO) requirements?
A. RTO 2 hours, RPO 20 minutes, Granular Recovery Technology enabled
B. RTO 20 minutes, RPO 2 hours, Granular Recovery Technology enabled
C. RTO 20 minutes, RPO 2 hours, Individual E-mail Recovery enabled
D. RTO 2 hours, RPO 20 minutes, Individual E-mail Recovery enabled
Answer: B

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NO.25 What does the Backup Exec Environment Check utility verify to ensure that the installation process can
complete successfully? (Choose two.)
A. Is a previous version of Backup Exec installed?
B. Is there enough storage space for disk-based backups?
C. Is an SMTP Server available?
D. Are there Microsoft SQL database account privileges?
E. Are there sufficient logon account privileges?
Answer: AE

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NO.26 Which three summaries can be found on the Job Monitor's System Summary view? (Choose three.)
A. device and media summary
B. alerts summary
C. licensing summary
D. installed patch summary
E. job summary
Answer: ABE

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NO.27 Which media set property defines the amount of time that data can be added to a piece of media?
A. Append Period
B. Overwrite Protection Period
C. Retention Period
D. Media Update Period
Answer: A

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NO.28 A global company must use a "follow-the-sun" backup strategy, which means that the backup servers
are constantly performing backups. The SLA requires that both DHCP and Active Directory remain
available.
Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers component is required in order to meet the SLA?
A. Data Protection Option
B. Advanced Open File Option
C. Central Admin Server Option
D. Agent for Enterprise Vault Option
Answer: B

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NO.29 Which two Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Server agents/options support remote installation
from an existing media server? (Choose two.)
A. Active Directory Recovery Agent
B. Advanced Open File Option
C. Desktop and Laptop Option
D. Library Expansion Option
E. Shared Storage Option
Answer: BC

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NO.30 Refer to the Exhibit.
Which method provides the most current restore point?
A. tape replication
B. tape backup
C. system rebuild
D. system deduplication
Answer: B

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