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Exam Code: HP0-D07
Exam Name: HP (Planning and Designing HP Enterprise Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 147 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which offline tool contains complete information about recently announced or enhanced HP products?
A. HP Product Bulletin
B. Offline Diagnostics Environment
C. HPeConfigure Solutions tool
D. HPPartSurfer
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which HP product is designed for high density rack deployments and uses the heat exchanger to
recirculate and cool the hot server exhaust air?
A. Water Hookup kit for HP Rack Systems
B. Dynamic Power Saver
C. HP Modular Cooling System G2
D. Rack 10000 G2 with Rack Cooling Extender
Answer: C

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NO.3 Your customer's IT infrastructure consists of 64 HP server blades, two redundant Fibre Channel SANs,
and an HP ProCurve Networking switch. Which HP solution should you recommend to reduce physical
server-to-network cabling and to separate server and network administration?
A. HP Virtual Connect
B. HP 1:10Gb Ethernet
C. HPProCurve 6120G
D. HP GbE2C Layer 2/3
Answer: A

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NO.4 You need to verify the interoperability of your proposed solution with the customers existing SAN fabric.
Which resource lists the SAN fabric connectivity and switch interoperability rules between C-Series and
B-Series switches?
A. HPStorageWorks SAN Designer
B. HPStorageWorks Sizer
C. HP Storage Essential SAN Visibility
D. HPStorageWorks SAN Design Reference Guide
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which server platforms provide significant power savings by sharing power supplies and fansacross
multiple server nodes? (Select two.)
A. HP ProLiant ML500
B. HP ProLiant DL700
C. HP Integrity Superdome
D. HP ProLiant BladeSystem
E. HP ProLiant DL1000
Answer: D,E

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NO.6 A customer requests a memory and processor upgrade of their existing enterprise solution. Where will
you find information on the solution you should propose?
A. HPSalesBuilder for Windows
B. HP System Selling Guide
C. HP SAN Design Reference Guide
D. HP Integrity, HP 9000, and carrier-grade servers Configuration Guide
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which HP server family offers 100% availability?
A. HP Integrity NonStop servers
B. HP ProLiant server blades
C. HP Integrity server blades
D. HP Integrity Superdome servers
Answer: A

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NO.8 What are key features of the HP Modular Cooling System G2? (Select two.)
A. It supports up to a 35kW load in one rack.
B. It can be ordered in multiple rack sizes.
C. It can be split into two separate units.
D. It monitors internal temperatures of rack servers.
E. It can be configured to cool two racks.
Answer: A,E

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NO.9 .Which Oracle product helps improve the efficiency of corporate operations, adapts rapidly to changes
in the supply chain, and services customers more effectively through multiple channels?
A. JD EdwardsEnterpriseOne
B. Oracle E-Business Suite
C. Oracle Retail
D. Oracle Siebel
Answer: C

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NO.10 What are components of HP ProActive Defense strategy? (Select three.)
A. Adaptive EDGE Architecture
B. Threat Management
C. Secure Mobility
D. Trusted Infrastructure
E. Access Control
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.11 You are analyzing a customer's environment to design an expansion of an existing SAN infrastructure.
What must you consider?
A. Integrating consolidated switch management is necessary when using more than four switches.
B. Integrating different vendors in a SAN fabric maximizes availability and decreases complexity.
C. Merging switches of different series can reduce the supported maximum hop-count.
D. Mixing switches with different speeds is not supported in an HP SAN topology.
Answer: C

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NO.12 What determines the applications and capabilities that are included with an HP OpenVMS license?
A. the number of processor sockets
B. the number of processor cores
C. the type of operating environment
D. the type of cell board
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which HP service will provide a customer with a 3D model of the airflows and cooling conditions in their
data center environment?
A. Thermal Quick Assessment for HPBladeSystem Environments
B. Thermal Comprehensive Assessment
C. Thermal Quick Assessment
D. Thermal Intermediate Assessment
Answer: B

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NO.14 When server density is your customer's main concern, which server solution should you recommend?
A. HP Integrityrx servers
B. HP ProLiant ML servers
C. HP BladeSystem servers
D. HP ProLiant DL servers
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which tool do you use to create a valid configuration and quote for your customer?
A. HP Parts Reference Guide
B. HP Systems Selling Guide
C. HPSalesBuilder for Windows
D. HP Product Bulletin
Answer: C

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NO.16 Your customer recently implemented an HP Integrity rx8640 server running HP-UX 11i v3. He needs to
deploy multiple operating systems on the same physical server with electrical isolation. Which HP solution
allows the customer to isolate multiple operating systems that are running on a single server?
A. HP-UX 11i Virtual partitions (vPars)
B. HPnPartitions (nPars)
C. HP-UX Secure Resource Partitions (SRP)
D. HP Integrity Virtual Machines (Integrity VM)
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which component can be migrated between nPars?
A. interleaved memory
B. base cell
C. floating cell
D. vPar
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which HP product simplifies the monitoring of HP servers, storage, and third-party systems through
management standards such as WMI, WBEM, and SNMP?
A. Insight Remote Support
B. HP Systems Insight Manager
C. Storage Essentials
D. Operations Manager
Answer: B

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NO.19 A new customer is looking for a virtual tape library solution that will support more than 1PB of usable
disk space. Which storage solutions meet these requirements? (Select two)
A. HPStorageWorks 9000 Virtual Library System
B. HPStorageWorks 6000 Virtual Library System
C. HPStorageWorks RDX Removable Disk Backup System
D. HPStorageWorks D2D4000 Backup System
E. HPStorageWorks 12000 Virtual Library System EVA Gateway
Answer: A,E

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NO.20 Your customer purchased several HP servers from your company five years ago and needs an
upgrade to new hardware. He recently met with Cisco and has asked you to explain why the HP
BladeSystem is a better solution. Which features are supported by only the HP BladeSystem solution?
(Select three.)
A. Virtual Connect
B. N+1 power supply redundancy
C. Insight Software
D. Thermal Logic
E. Ethernet andFibre Channel connectivity
F. AMD and Intel processors
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.21 Which benefits of HP StorageWorks XP Disk Arrays should you emphasize to your customer? (Select
two.)
A. integrated Ultrium-based library for faster backups
B. iSCSI connectivity
C. supportsAsynchonous SRDF replication
D. multi-site data replication capability
E. supports online firmware upgrades
Answer: D,E

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NO.22 You are presenting a Superdome-based solution to your customer, and need Visio diagrams to make it
clear that your solution fits his requirements. Which source would you use for the diagrams?
A. Active Answers
B. Product Bulletin
C. SalesBuilder for Windows
D. SuperdomeSizer
Answer: C

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NO.23 Which EVA product includes an embedded Command View console on the management module as an
alternative to a dedicated management server for basic functionality?
A. EVA6400
B. EVA6200
C. EVA8400
D. EVA4400
Answer: D

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NO.24 What are characteristics of HP Converged Infrastructure? (Select three.)
A. Protected
B. Managed
C. Consolidated
D. Virtualized
E. Optimized
F. Orchestrated
Answer: D,E,F

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NO.25 Which statement is true about the HP Converged Infrastructure?
A. It transitions away from a product-centric approach to a shared-service management model.
B. It is a strategy built specifically for enterprise customers.
C. It delivers scalable and flexible IT services from an external source.
D. It is built on a model of eight key enablers that reflect recent changes in technology.
Answer: A

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NO.26 When is it beneficial to use SAS drives instead of SATA drives?
A. when high disk capacity is required
B. when hot-swap capability is required
D .when the lowest cost per GB is required
C. when high reliability is required
Answer: C

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NO.27 Which HP tool provides configuration capability for HP ProLiant and Integrity servers, workstations,
and StorageWorks products?
A. HPStorageWorks Sizer
B. ActiveAnswers Sizers
C. HPeConfigure Solutions tool
D. Enterprise SystemsSizer
Answer: C

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NO.28 Your customer has multiple racks of older Dell PowerEdge servers and is running out of power and
space in her data center. She needs higher server rack density and reduced power consumption.
Which HP server families would you recommend to replace her existing hardware? (Select two.)
A. HP DL
B. HP SL
C. HP ML
D. HP RX
E. HP BL
Answer: B,E

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NO.29 Your customer has several HP-UX 11i applications running on an HP Integrity server. Which tool
should you propose that will enable her to build intelligent policy for resource partitioning and
management?
A. HP Systems Insight Manager
B. HPGlancePlus Pack
C. HP-UX Workload Manager
D. HP Virtual Resource Management
Answer: C

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NO.30 Which HP resource checks for firmware interoperability problems, inventories SAN switches, and
performs an analysis of zoning configurations?
A. HPStorageWorks SAN Design Reference Guide
B. HPStorageWorks SAN Designer
C. HP Storage Essentials Enterprise Edition
D. HPStorageWorks Essentials SAN Visibility
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-Y25
Exam Name: HP (Building HP ProCurve Enterprise Mobility Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 56 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Wireless stations in a VSC run voice applications (among other applications). You want voice traffic to
be prioritized as it travels from the AP to the wireless stations. What is needed to meet this requirement?
(select two.)
A. The VSC priority mechanism must be set to VSC very High.
B. WMM adevertising must be enabled on the VSC.
C. The VSC priority mechanism must be set to IP QoS.
D. An IP QoS profile must select the voice traffic and set it to Very High.
E. The wireless stations must support WMM.
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 You are setting up an RF Manager solution for a university that is implementing a new wireless network.
Hackers have tried to compromise the wired network, and you expect attacks to increase exponentially
when the university implements its wireless network. When you configure the intrusion protection setting,
you want to ensure that the sensors can protect against threats on three channels at a time. Which
intrusion protection setting would you select?
A. Block
B. Disrupt
C. Interrupt
D. Disconnect
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which devices provide the data integrity and privacy that create a trusted network infrastructure in an
Enterprise Mobility Solution?
A. RF Manager and sensors.
B. RF Planner and sensors
C. MSM Controllers and APs
D. MSM Controllers and identity Driven Manager (IDM)
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are deploying an Enterprise Mobility Solution for a company that is concerned about
employees picking up viruses on their laptops and the introducing those viruses into the network when
they connect wirelessly. To deal with this issue, you are planning to deploy IDM and Windows Access
Protection (NAP) as an endpoint integrity solution. Which method of implementing access control on the
VSC provides the best option to meet this requirement?
A. Public access control.
B. Centralized access control.
C. 802.1X-based access control.
D. Health-based access control.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
A wireless user associates with a VSC. The following settings are configured on the VSC:
Use Ser ice Controller for Authentication = Enabled
Use Ser ice Controller for Access control = Enabled
VSC ingress mapping=SSID
Client data tunnel=Disabled
Wireless security filters=Disabled
HTML authentication= Enabled
VSC egress mapping=Default
In the VSC binding for the group to which the users' AP belong, there is no egress VLAN setting.
The network topology is shown in the exhibit. Which resources are available to the guest before the guest
logs in and becomes an authorized user?
A. resources available on the public Internet.
B. resources available on the public internet and in VLAN 1.
C. resources in VLANs 1, 2, and 3.
D. resources in VLAN 1 only.
Answer: D

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NO.6 A company is using 802.1X authentication with dynamic VLANs on its wired network. The company has
three user groups that are assigned to VLANs 10, 20, and 30. You are deploying an Enterprise Mobility
Solution with an MSM760 Access Controller and 50 APs. On the MSM
Controller, you have configured a VSC that enforces 802.1X authentication. How do you continue to
create a consistent experience for users on wired and wireless connections?
A. Bind the VSC to the APs' group with VLANs 10, 20, and 30 as egress VLANs.
B. Enable the dynamic VLANs option in the VSC, and bind the VSC to the APs' group.
C. Configure VLANs 10, 20 and 30 on the MSM APs' bridge ports, and tag the MSM APs' switch ports for
each VLAN.
D. Bind the VSC to the APs' group, and tag the MSM APs' switch ports for VLANs 10, 20, and 30.
Answer: D

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NO.7 You are implementing a public access solution on the MSM Controller because your company wants to
grant visitors access to the internet. The company has only two VLANs: VLANs 1 for users and VLAN 2
for servers. VLAN 2 also includes the internet connection. You connect the MSM APs and the MSM
Controller's LAN port to VLAN 1 and the controller's internet port to VLAN
2. You must protect the company's workstations on VLAN 1 from unauthorized access by
unauthenticated guests. What must you do no the MSM Controller?
A. Create an unauthenticated user ACL that prohibits access to all of the VLANs except the controller.
B. On the VSC for guests, enable the option that terminates WPA at the controller.
C. On the VSC for guests, enable the wireless security filter that limits wireless traffic to the controller.
D. Add an entry to the default site ACL that prohibits access to all of the VLANs except the
controller.
Answer: C

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NO.8 During RF planning, why is it necessary to evaluate the types of applications your wireless network
must support?
A. Some applications are associated with sensitive data, and you must plan whether to implement
encryption.
B. Some applications are associated with sensitive data, and you must plan whether to implement
wireless threat management.
C. Some applications are more popular, and only a certain number of users are supported by each
wireless AP radio.
D. Some applications require more bandwidth, and each wireless AP radio has a certain amount of
bandwidth.
Answer: D

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NO.9 You must implement access control for your wireless users on a solution-wide level. You have decided
on the access control strategy recommended for guests and have already begun to customize public
access settings. Which option must you select in the VSC for these users?
A. use Service Controller for: Access control (centralized access control)
B. Client data tunnel
C. 802.1X authentication
D. wireless protection set to WPA
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is a potential risk of enabling the RSSI-based classification feature in an Authorized WLAN plicy?
A. RF Manager might classify your own APs as Rogue APs because their transmit power is too high and
take action against them.
B. RF Manager must rely exclusively on RSSI to detect harmful devices? Locations, instead of drawing on
network detectors' findings. This might make the prediction less accurate.
C. RF Manager might classify legitimate APs owned by nearby companies as Rogue APs and take action
against them.
D. Sensors might decide that they should not take action against a potentially harmful device because its
RSSI is low and the device might still be a risk.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-E25
Exam Name: HP (HP Service sales consultant)
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Total Q&A: 57 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 When should you position HP infrastructure software services to your customer?
A. after the software is delivered and the customer starts the deployment
B. at the beginning of the sales process as part of a goal-oriented solution
C. once the order is finalized and the customer begins to plan deployment activities
D. when HP installation services are added to the order as part of the configuration process
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the first step to building a customer relationship and selling HP mission critical services?
A. Provide a reassuring onsite presence.
B. Recommend leading remote support technology.
C. Understand how IT can improve the customer's business.
D. Free the customer's staff to focus on their core competencies.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which HP storage competitor has a strong partnership with Dell?
A. IBM
B. HDS
C. NetApp
D. EMC
Answer: D

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NO.4 What are typical data center transition services? (Select two.)
A. deployment services
B. critical facilities design
C. adaptiveinstrastructure maturity model assessment
D. critical facilities consulting
E. migration services
Answer: A,E

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NO.5 What is the best way to answer the customer comment below?
I do not need proactive support. The hardware is very reliable."
A. The HP Proactive 24 Services option can help stabilize the overall computing environment.
B. industry analysis shows that 80% of problems are caused by people and process and only 20%
by hardware.
C. Proactive support includes the rapid deployment option so that less downtime is needed to
configure HP storage.
D. From independent customer inquiries, it became evident that more efficient storage solutions
significantly reduce cost.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-H08
Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP Desktops , Workstations , and Notebooks)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 131 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which statement about SATA technology is correct?
A. SAS hard drives can be connected to a SATA controller.
B. SATA hard drives can be connected directly to a SCSI controller.
C. SATA hard drives can be connected to a SAS controller.
D. SATA hard drives can be installed in a daisy chain configuration.
Answer: C

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NO.2 The maximum amount of usable RAM in Microsoft Vista is limited by which factors? (Select two.)
A. processor manufacturer
B. SyStem chipset
C. operating system
D. memory drivers
E. hard drive capacity
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 An HP product carries a 3-3-3 warranty. What does this mean?
A. The product carries a 3 year parts, 3 year labor warranty, with no onsite service.
B. The product carries a nine year warranty on all parts, labor, and updates.
C. The product carries a 3 year parts, labor, and onsite service warranty.
D. The product carries an advanced replacement warranty.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What does HP QuickLook enable you to do?
A. access your Outlook data even if your device is inhibernate mode or powered off
B. access HP technical data or support information on the Internet
C. view the contents of a system folder without opening that folder
D. view the complete system information relating to your notebook
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the main function of a DisplayPort to DVI Adapter?
A. to convert the output of a graphics card from VGA to DVI
B. to convertDisplayPort output to DVI for use with a Single Link DVI-D monitor
C. to enable 3D graphics to be rendered more clearly on a CRT monitor
D. to enable S-Video support in order to view HDTV content
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which statement is true about HP thin clients?
A. They run Linux operating systems only.
B. They have no system BIOS.
C. They use an embedded operating system.
D. They have no network functionality.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the primary function of MXM graphics modules in portables?
A. provides the ability to use scalable link interface (SLI) graphic processors
B. allows the graphics processor to be easily upgraded
C. provides high-definition hardware support
D. allows an embedded video chipset installation
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which HP product line is best suited for a customer who uses a manufacturing computer-aided design
program?
A. HP Tablet
B. HPTouchSmart PC
C. HP Mini Notebook
D. HP Personal Workstation
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is a benefit of HP DieamColor technology?
A. It automatically locates and hides defective pixels by changing their color.
B. It allows the use of a digitizer for point-and-click display functionality.
C. It produces consistent color across digital devices and applications.
D. It adjusts the color of the display according to the external light sources.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which HP product supports a RAID 5 configuration?
A. notebook
B. desktop workstation
C. slimline desktop
D. mobile workstation
Answer: B

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NO.11 Identify two BIOS security features introduced with the HP BIOS based on Unified Extensible Firmware
Interface (UEFI). (Select two.)
A. system recovery
B. BIOS user accounts
C. boot device options
D. SpareKey
E. DriveLock
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 A customer complains that the HP QuickLook 2 feature is not working on their notebook running
Windows Vista. Which application must be installed to support this feature?
A. HP Assistant
B. Microsoft Aero
C. HP Help and Support
D. Microsoft Office
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which operating system is supported by HP on HP desktop PCs?
A. Ubuntu Linux
B. Windows Server 2008
C. WindowsVista
D. Windows 2000
Answer: C

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NO.14 What is the difference between a frontside bus (FSB) and Intel QuickPath?
A. QuickPath connects the memory controller to the I/O controller; FSB connects the CPU to the chipset.
B. QuickPath is a peripheral data bus; FSB is a CPU data bus.
C. QuickPath is a graphics controller bus; FSB is a CPU data bus.
D. QuickPath provides faster CPU data transfer speeds than the FSB.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which HP option contains an integrated hard drive?
A. Mobile Expansion Unit (MEU)
B. 3-in-1NAS Port Replicator
C. Simple Port Replicator
D. Advanced Port Replicator
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which function does the Wireless LAN 802.11 n standard provide?
A. uses the same antenna to receive and transmit simultaneously
B. operates in the 2.4GHz frequency range only
C. uses two or more transmitter and receiver antennas
D. provides more security features than 802.11
Answer: C

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NO.17 A monitor is moved to a new computer. Upon power-up the screen message Theft Mode Enabled
displays. How can you restore the monitor to normal operation? (Select two.)
A. Obtain the master PIN from the system administrator.
B. Disable the Theft Mode in HP Display Utility.
C. Enter the PIN in HP Display Assistant Utility.
D. Return the monitor to original computer and disable Theft Mode.
E. Press and hold the reset button on the back of the monitor.
Answer: B,D

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NO.18 What must you do to optimize the performance of a 64-bit processor?
A. Install 64-bit compatible RAM.
B. Enable bit control in the BIOS.
C. Use a 64-bit operating system.
D. Install faster system memory.
Answer: C

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NO.19 What is the difference between SATA and eSATA?
A. SATA has more drive options.
B. eSATA uses an external port.
C. SATA has lower power consumption.
D. eSATA uses a faster bus speed.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which range of colors does the HP DreamColor display?
A. more than 1 billion colors in a 30-bit. LED-backlit display
B. more than 10 billion colors in a 30-bit. LED-backlit display
C. up to 1 million colors in a 30-bit. LED-backlit display
D. up to 10 million colors in a 30-bit. LED-backlit display
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-T16
Exam Name: HP (Industry Standard Architecture and Technology)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 123 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 How does single-mode fiber compare with multimode fiber?
A. Single mode fiber has a higher bandwidth and lower loss.
B. Multimode fiber has a higher bandwidth and lower loss.
C. Multimode fiber is more often used for long-distance telecommunications.
D. Single-mode fiber has higher loss and lower bandwidth.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which technology should you implement for disk redundancy?
A. SATA
B. NTFS
C. RAID
D. SCSI
Answer: C

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NO.3 What can you do to optimize memory performance?
A. Enable Advanced Memory Buffer.
B. Rearrange existing memory to allow interleaving.
C. Implement memory caching
D. Configure processor interleaving.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A customer is running a single-threaded application and experiences performance problems connected
with the processor subsystem. How would you solve this issue?
A. Change processor affinity to enable splitting single threads into multiple threads
B. Add additional processors
C. Upgrade the processor with a higher frequency processor.
D. Replace the processor with a higher stepping processor
E. Upgrade the processor with a multi-core processor.
F. Enable the integrated memory controller of the process at the BIOS.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which server filters outgoing network requests?
A. FTP
B. Proxy
C. DNS
D. WINS
Answer: B

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NO.6 What must you check prior to adding another processor to an existing system.? (Select Three)
A. amount of memory in the system
B. compatibility of the new processor with existing processors
C. firmware requirements for the new processor
D. number of users currently logged into the system
E. number of processors the operating system supports
F. weight of the new processor
Answer: BCE

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NO.7 Why should server firmware be updated to the most recent version? (Select two)
A. to maintain a valid warranty
B. to fix problems from earlier versions
C. to support new features
D. to refresh changes that a user has edited in the existing firmware
E. to support leagcy features
Answer: BC

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NO.8 Into which range do reserved TCP/IP server ports generally fall?
A. 0-1023
B. 1-512
C. 21-80
D. 1024-8080
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which statements are true about AMD 2P or 4P system architecture? (Select three)
A. Requests for memory access are handle by the Northbridge ASIC.
B. Memory must be installed in banks corresponding to the installed processors.
C. Each processor has its own memory controller
D. The maximum amount of memory can be installed, regardless of the number of installed processors.
E. Requests for memory access are handle directly by the corresponding processor and relayed through
the HyperTransport link.
F. Communications between CPU and memory is handle through the QuickPath Interconnect.
Answer: BCE

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NO.10 Which Network Operating System (NOS) filesystem allows you to set security on invididual files?
A. FAT32
B. FAT
C. NTFS
D. CDFS
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which command can be used to verify connectivity to a client machine?
A. ping
B. nslookup
C. nbstat
D. ipconfig
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which major challenges of I/O virtualization do Virtual Machine Managers need to address? (Select
two)
A. WWN virtualization
B. DMA virtualization
C. IRQ virtualization
D. port virtualization
E. MAC virtualization
Answer: AE

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NO.13 Your RAID 5 array on a Smart Array sustains a drive failure. A host spare replaces the failed drive
and rebuilds successfully. After replacing the failed drive with a new drive, what happens next?
A. The spare drive replicates its data to the new drive and both work as a mirror until you evict the spare
drive.
B. The new drive stays offline until you assign it to the array, at which point it automatically takes the place
of the spare drive.
C. The new drive re-assumes its place in the RAID set and after data rebuild is complete, the drive that
was the spare once again becomes a hot spare drive.
D. The new drive becomes a spare drive and you must go to the ACU to remove the old spare drive and
then re-add the new drive to the array.
Answer: C

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NO.14 What does a system require to achieve PCI Hot Plug capability? (Select three)
A. hot-plug fans
B. hog-plug operating systems
C. hot-plug adapter drivers
D. hot-plug memory
E. hot-plug system tray
F. hot-plug platform
Answer: BCF

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NO.15 Which Network Operating System (NOS) security practices are commonly used when planning server
management? (Select three)
A. disable FTP and SSH
B. install hardware and software firewalls
C. disable unused TCP/IP service ports
D. use easy to remember password
E. enforce regular password changes
Answer: BCE

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NO.16 What must you check prior to adding another processor to an existing system? (Select Three)
A. amount of memory in the system
B. compatibility of the new processor with existing processors
C. firmware requirements for the new processor
D. number of users currently logged into the system
E. number of processors the operating system supports
F. weight of the new processor
Answer: BCE

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NO.17 You are comparing similar versions of Intel Xeon and AMD Opteron processors. Which statements are
true about these processors? (Select two)
A. Opteron processors use a Northbridge that operates at core bus speed.
B. AMD Opteron processors are optimized for virtualization and AMD-V technology.
C. An Intel Xeon processor uses HyperTransport link to access its memory.
D. Intel Xeon processors are optimized for virtualization with Intel VT technology.
E. An AMD Opteron processors uses QuickPath Interconnect to access its memory.
Answer: BD

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NO.18 What happens when you install a 66Mhz, 32-bit PCI card in a 33MHz, 64-bit PCI slot?
A. The 66MHz, 32-bit card operates at 33MHz in 64-bit mode.
B. The 66MHz, 32-bit card operates at 66MHz in 32-bit mode.
C. All 33MHz, 64-bit cards on the PCI bus operate like 33MHz, 32-bit cards.
D. The 66MHz card operates at 33MHz.
Answer: D

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NO.19 What is the virtual machine instance commonly called?
A. guest
B. host
C. partition
D. hypervisor
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which port type does a host server use when connected to an FC-SAN?
A. N_Port
B. E_Port
C. G_Port
D. F_Port
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP3-019
Exam Name: HP (HP Laserjet 4200 / 4300 serleS)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 How are cleaning pages printed on the LaserJet 4200/4300 series printers.?
A. manually only
B. automatically only
C. manually or automatically
D. not printed from these printers
Answer: B

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NO.2 In order to prevent overheating and print quality defects, what is the minimum space required for
ventilation on the left and right sides of the HP LaserJet 4200/4300 printer ?
A. 30 mm (1.2 in.)
B. 50 mm (2.0 in.)
C. 101 mm (4 in.)
D. 160 mm (6.4 in.)
Answer: B

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NO.3 How many heating elements are in the fuser on the LaserJet 4200/4300 printer?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP3-C11
Exam Name: HP (HP Scanjet N9120)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 28 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What types of organization are potential customers for the HP Scanjet N9120?
A. ones that scan slides and negatives
B. ones that digitize large format images
C. ones that digitize files and forms
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the base warranty offered with the HP Scanjet N9120?
A. 1-1-1
B. 2-1-1
C. 3-3-1
D. 3-3-3
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are some features of the HP Scanjet N9120.? (Select two.)
A. hardware deskew
B. switchable black and white background
C. mechanical duplexing
D. digital sending
E. scan speed 60 ppm
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: HP0-A25
Exam Name: HP (NonStop SQL/MX)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 78 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What takes place during a POPULATE INDEX? (Select two.)
A. DDL lock
B. user-defined transaction
C. automatic adjustment of MAXEXTENTS
D. the data movement in a single TMF transaction
E. automatic reload to organize the index structure more efficiently and to reduce index levels
Answer: A, C

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NO.2 A column definition includes DOB DATE HEADING ®B irt h D a t ¡¯. W h a t is t h e hea di n g o ut p u t f
SELECT MAX(DOB)?
A. MAX(dob)
B. Birth Date
C. EXPR(dob)
D. EXPR
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which statements are true about AUDITCOMPRESS? (Select two.)
A. The audit contains only altered columns.
B. It has no effect on transaction throughput. C. It is part of the system ¯ s T M F con fi gu r a ti on
D. It contributes to higher transaction throughput.
E. Compression is performed by the audit disk process.
Answer: A, D

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NO.4 What are the benefits of using rowsets in SQL/MX? (Select two.)
A. to reduce the throughput
B. to reduce the number of calls to servernet
C. to reduce the disc space for the database
D. to reduce simultaneous access to several rows
E. to reduce the number of calls to the database system
Answer: B, E

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NO.5 What is the correct definition of a column?
A. C1 VARCHAR (100) DEFAULT ®HA M BUR
B. C1 VARCHAR (100) NULL DEFAULT NULL
C. C1 VARCHAR (100) DEFAULT ° SAN TA C LAR
D. C1 VARCHAR (100) NULL DEFAULT ®HA M BUR
Answer: A

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NO.6 Your system has 30 audited data disks. You want to create a partitioned table with 60 partitions. How
can you accomplish this? (Select two.)
A. You define two partitions on each disk in different subvolumes with the same filename. B. You install
SMF and configure 60 logical disks.
C. You install 30 additional disks.
D. You define two partitions on each disk in the same subvolume with different filenames.
Answer: C, D

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NO.7 A table mytable has been defined on the development system. As several changes have been made
the original create-script is no longer valid. Which combination of mxci commands can be used to produce
a valid create-script?
A. LOG and SHOWDDL
B. OUT and SHOWDDL
C. OUT and INVOKE
D. LOG and INFO TABLE, OBEYFORM
Answer: A

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NO.8 The following query is a typical example of which potential problem? UPDATE inventory SET
retail_price =retail_price * 1.1;
A. the Halloween update
B. the query will take too long to execute
C. the retail_price column cannot be CAST to a float
D. the executor would typically start a parallel query even on small tables
Answer: A

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NO.9 In SQL/MX syntax, for which database element is an explicit assigned character set supported?
A. row
B. table
C. column
D. constraint
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which statements are true about the location of the system catalog tables of the system \MYSYS?
(Select two.)
A. The subvolume of the catalog tables is MYSYS.
B. The subvolume of the catalog tables is always ZSD0.
C. The volume of the catalog tables is always $SYSTEM.
D. The subvolume of the catalog tables is always ZSQLMX.
E. The volume of the catalog tables can be found in $SYSTEM.ZSQLMX.MXANCHOR.
Answer: B, E

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NO.11 Using the following DDL command: CREATE TABLE new_table LIKE old_table
What can be specified for new_table? (Select two.)
A. Format 1 or Format 2
B. indexes from old_table
C. headings from old_table
D. organization and primary key
E. extent sizes and maximum extents
Answer: C, E

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NO.12 How do you access the current data on the SQL/MP view $data.mycat.myview from mxci? (Select two.)
A. SELECT * FROM $data.mycat.myview;
B. CREATE VIEW cat.sch.myview AS SELECT ordernum, order_qty FROM $data.mycat.myview;
SELECT*FROM cat.sch.myview;
C. CREATE SQLMP ALIAS cat.sch.myview $data.mycat.myview; SELECT * FROM cat.sch.myview
D. CREATE TABLE cat.sch.myview LIKE &data.mycat.myview; INSERT INTO cat.sch.myview SELECT *
FROM $data.mycat.myview; SELECT * FROM cat.sch.myview;
Answer: A, C

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NO.13 When a table has the primary key defined as DROPPABLE, which statements are true? (Select two.)
A. A SYSKEY is generated for the table. B. The STORE BY clause must be used.
C. A DROPPABLE key can only be ascending.
D. The primary key is used as the clustering key.
E. A seperate unique index is build for the primary key.
Answer: A, E

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NO.14 Which command reports the average free space in data blocks?
A. FUP INFO =table, slack
B. FUP INFO =table, stat, analyze
C. FUP INFO table mucatalog.myschema.mytable stat
D. FUP INFO table mucatalog.myschema.mytable detail
Answer: C

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NO.15 Who is allowed to add columns to a table? (Select two.)
A. the SUPER.SUPER
B. the owner of the table
C. the owner ¯ s g r op super
D. the owner of the schema
E. users that have been granted access
Answer: A, D

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Exam Code: HP2-B22
Exam Name: HP (IPG Sales Fundamentals v8.1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which HP Color LaserJet advantage can be attributed to HP Color Sphere technology?
A. superior reliability
B. fastest first page out
C. lowest cost per page
D. highest rated print quality
Answer: D

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NO.2 What are the key printing technology trends?
A. color, convergence and networking
B. MFP, networking and AIO
C. VOIP, color, copying
D. digital fax, cluster print, AIO
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is a new trend in imaging and printing document workflow?
A. printing booklets
B. scan to email
C. printing and then copying documents
D. distributing hard copies of documents by hand
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is one result of the availability of digital content?
A. less need for paper documents
B. a decrease in the amount of printing
C. an increase in the amount of printing
D. more printed material included in product packages
Answer: B

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NO.5 Why has there been an increase in the use of color printing in business? (Select two.)
A. Businesses are printing more pictures.
B. It ischeaper than printing monochrome.
C. Fewer monochrome printers are available.
D. There are benefits of using color in documents.
E. There have been reductions in the cost of color printing.
Answer: D,E

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NO.6 How does the HP $3.6 billion R&D investment benefit HP resellers?
A. Accessories connect easily to HP devices.
B. HP devices have the biggest display screens.
C. Larger paper sizes are supported on HP devices.
D. Products and solutions create customer demand.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which imaging and printing process is becoming less important because of digital content?
A. printing
B. stapling
C. copying
D. scanning
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which printing trend is the result of the increase in original digital content.?
A. Fewer documents are being printed.
B. Business is not concerned about printing costs.
C. Documents are copied on paper and then distributed.
D. Documents are distributed electronically and then printed.
Answer: D

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NO.9 What are the three main reasons why customers print?
A. habit, easy, cheap
B. habit, color, media
C. habit, communicate, legal
D. habit, easy to file, easy to discard
Answer: C

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NO.10 What are accurate descriptions of a first impression in business? (Select two.)
A. always positive
B. easy to change
C. difficult to change
D. based upon detailed information
E. made in the first 5 to 30 seconds
Answer: A,D

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